I think the context gives the meaning quite well:
Hebrews 2:9-16 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that He, by the grace of God, might taste death for everyone. 10 For it was fitting for Him, for whom
are all things and by whom
are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings. 11 For both He who sanctifies and those who are being sanctified
are all of one, for which reason He is not ashamed to call them brethren, 12 saying: "I will declare Your name to My brethren; In the midst of the assembly I will sing praise to You." 13 And again: "I will put My trust in Him." And again: "Here am I and the children whom God has given Me." 14 Inasmuch then as the children have partaken of flesh and blood, He Himself likewise shared in the same, that through death He might destroy him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, 15 and release those who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. 16 For indeed
He does not give aid to angels, but He does give aid to the seed of Abraham.
1. We learn from other passages that all who believe are children of Abraham, so it is speaking of believers.
2. He's quoting Isaiah Isaiah 8:18 "Here am I and the children whom the LORD has given me! We are for signs and wonders in Israel From the LORD of hosts, Who dwells in Mount Zion." God gave them to Christ when God gave them faith. By nature they were children of the devil.
3. No. In context that wouldn't make much sense. The purpose of the verse is to show that the Son took on a human nature to redeem us. The verse could just as easily be translated as the NASB does:
"Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil," The author of the Hebrews does use two different Greek words here with overlapping meanings. I think it would be quite a stretch to hang some type of doctrine of pre-existence on a verse such as this especially since that's not the purpose of the passage. The purpose of the passage is to tell us about what Christ did for us, the focus of the passage is not upon the children. It's assumed that the reader knows who the children are. Christ suffered humiliation for us and was exalted through his humiliation. Christ did something for us that he never did for the angels.
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