Jesus tasted death for every man

[beloved57]

heb 2:

9But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

Many today use this verse of scripture to teach that Jesus christ died for every single person in the world, that is he tasted death for all who ever lived.

But is this what this scripture teaches ? What does the word taste mean ?



1) to taste, to try the flavour of
2) to taste
a) i.e. perceive the flavour of, partake of, enjoy
b) to feel, make trial of, experience
3) to take food, eat, to take nourishment, eat

I dont believe taste here is describing his passion or suffering , or shedding of his blood. I think that is expressed clearly in earlier portion of the verse

who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death

Therefore why the repetition ? Hence a better reading of this most misused verse would be..

That christ has savoured death for every man , that is death has lost its sting , saints Gods covenant people no longer need fear death..as in heb 2


14Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.

So instead of this being a verse that is misapplied to teach universal atonement..it is actually a verse to minister comfort to the covenant children..

1 thess 4:

13But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.

Does this make sense ?

[wildboar]

I honestly don't understand what you are getting at. It appears that you are using Strong's or some other such tool? What you should keep in mind is the strengths and limitations of the tool. Strong's does not usually provide definitions--it provides various ways in which the word has been translated. Often times people make the mistake of thinking that each word that is given by Strong's is a possibility in any given context and just run with it. Context gives the meaning of the word. If you were to try to define the Greek word it would be something like "to have perception of something either by mouth or by experience." It can apply to physical eating or to experiencing something cognitively and emotionally. The same word is used in Heb. 6:4

Hebrews 6:4

For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted the heavenly gift, and have become partakers of the Holy Spirit,

The purpose of the passage is not to teach a limited atonement or to teach a universal atonement. The central purpose of the passage is to teach about Christ's exaltation through humiliation. That being said, Christ's universal reign does seem to be compared to his universal tasting of death in the passage.

[beloved57]

wb says

honestly don't understand what you are getting at.

Its simple..

The context affords a different meaning for taste death in the immediate context and broader..

heb 2 9

9But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

right after having been made lower than the angels it referrs to suffering of death ! Why then after indicating His glorification it refers back to suffering of death ? Did He undergo a second suffering of death ?

This is what you have...we see jesus for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor that he should taste death !!

That seems repetetive sir..

But it is very likely that after suffering death and being crowned with glory and honor he now sweetens death makes it useful gainful..

Paul says of death in another place..phil 1 21

For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain.

so as an effect of his suffering death and being crowned with glory and honor he causes death to be tasteful , savor , gainful and useful...

For later in the context it says why..because the children had been fearful of death and subject to bondage..

heb 2:


10For it became him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings.
11For both he that sanctifieth and they who are sanctified are all of one: for which cause he is not ashamed to call them brethren,
12Saying, I will declare thy name unto my brethren, in the midst of the church will I sing praise unto thee.
13And again, I will put my trust in him. And again, Behold I and the children which God hath given me.
14Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.

Now because of the exalted position of their once suffering of death and now crowned with glory Head they have been deliverd from this fear and bondage of death..for now death for them can be tasteful sweet , and gain...

[Ugly_Gaunt_Cow]

Does this make sense ?

Nope.

[beloved57]

Nope.

ok thanks..glad you joined in..I have nothing else to add right now..

[Robert R. Higby]

My personal conviction is that the New Testament writers do not argue from a polemic of general vs. definite atonement because the issue did not exist back then. The ONLY doctrine of reconciliation in the NT is that of Christ's sufferings and death achieving salvation for the elect; the non-elect are never in view in any statement about Christ experiencing death for every man or any such expression.

We have only to ascertain what the apostolic doctrine was through positive NT teaching. There was no polemic against the opposite in many cases becauses there WAS NO OPPOSITE at that point in time!