How would you define these two terms:
Kingdom of heaven
Kingdom of God
What do feel is the difference between the two or would you say they are synonymous terms in the Scripture?
How would you define these two terms:
Kingdom of heaven
Kingdom of God
What do feel is the difference between the two or would you say they are synonymous terms in the Scripture?
Kingdom of God
1. "Kingdom of God" #Mt 6:33 Mr 1:14,15 Lu 4:43
2. "Kingdom of Christ" #Mt 13:41 20:21
3. "Kingdom of Christ and of God" #Eph 5:5
4. "Kingdom of David" #Mr 11:10
5. "The kingdom" #Mt 8:12 13:19
6. "Kingdom of heaven" #Mt 3:2 4:17 13:41
All denote the same thing under different aspects:
1. Christ's mediatorial authority, or his rule on the earth;
2. the blessings and advantages of all kinds that flow from this rule;
3. the subjects of this kingdom taken collectively, or the Church.
"SOLA SCRIPTURA… GRATIA… FIDE… CHRISTUS… DEO GLORIA" Scripture alone, being our final authority, teaches us that salvation is by grace His grace alone, through faith alone, in Christ alone, for the glory of God alone.
As a former dispensational, I can probably understand where this conversation is headed. I used to make a BIG deal about differentiating the two..
Dispensationals believe the Kingdom of Heavenis a literal earthly rule, and the Kindom of God is the spiritual Kingdom of God available to all.
They use this as their prooftext
From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say, Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand. (Matt. 4:17 KJV)
Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, And saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe the gospel. (Mark 1:14 KJV)
The thing Dispensationals don't understand is that God is not with Israel or any other nation for that matter.
In the former days God did separate Israel for Himself and gave her the land promised to Abraham. Israel was special among all the nations of the earth (Deut.7). But ultimately the blessing upon Abraham was to be given to all the nations (Matt.28:19-20). With the coming of Christ God fulfilled all the promises to the fathers (Rom.15:8). In this age, "God does not show favoritism, but accepts people from every nation who fear Him and do what is right'' (Acts 10:34).
All of Israel's institutions were fulfilled in Christ - including the land concept (Heb. 3-4). The Old Testament clearly states that God kept His word and gave the land to Israel. The notion that God had to give the land "again" is without Biblical foundation.
The Israel-centeredness of Dispensational Christians diverts attention away from the One whom God has set His seal upon - Jesus Christ (John 6:27; Matt.3:17). God's purpose focuses on the Son, not on an earthly nation (Eph.3:11). God is not ruling all things with reference to Israel, but with reference to the body of Christ on earth (Eph. 1:22). The unfolding of the future is not gauged by what happens to Israel, but by what Christ is doing to build His Church.
The Scriptures - Old and New - specifically tell us how God is with us. Jesus' name was Immanuel - "God with us." God is with those who are in his Son, not with any nation. In this sense, then, He is with all those believers who are "in Christ."
Ditch the Garbage! - Too many people are proud of their humility - I, on the other hand, am not humble - and am proud of it!
"Luther's New Testament was so much multiplied and spread by printers that even tailors and shoemakers, yea, even women and ignorant persons who had accepted this new Lutheran gospel, and could read a little German, studied it with the greatest avidity as the fountain of all truth. Some committed it to memory, and carried it about in their bosom. In a few months such people deemed themselves so learned that they were not ashamed to dispute about faith and the gospel not only with Catholic laymen, but even with priests and monks and doctors of divinity." - A complaint by German humanist Johann Cochlaeus.
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Holyday greetings to all!
Concerning these phrases: They are synonymous as clearly seen by the following passages and their contexts:
1)
Matt. 4.12-17. 'Now when He heard that John had been taken into custody, He withdrew into Galilee...From that time Jesus began to preach and say, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand."
Mark 1.14-15. 'And after John had been taken into custody, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, and saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent and believe in the gospel." '
2)
Matt. 5.3. 'Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.'
Luke 6.20. '..."Blessed are you who are poor, for yours is the kingdom of God." '
3)
Matt. 13.11. 'And He answered and said to them, "To you it has been granted to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been granted." '
Mark 4.11. 'And He was saying to them, "To you has been given the mystery of the kingdom of God; but those who are outside get everything in parables..." '
Luke 8.10. 'And He said, "To you it has been granted to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God, but to the rest it is in parables, in order that SEEING THEY MAY NOT SEE, AND HEARING THEY MAY NOT UNDERSTAND." '
The phrase 'kingdom of heaven' was used exclusively in Matthew, a gospel written specifically to Jews. This may be the reason for his primary use of this phrase as compared to his use of 'the kingdom of god.'
I could give other examples, but I think that this is enough to show that those phrases are indeed referring to the same thing.
Grace to you,
jak
hmmmm...Interesting posts so far.
Based on Kermie's post, I must not be a "despensationalist" (at least not when referring to the kingdom of heaven).
Why not consider or assume that some of the expressions or thoughts in the Scripture related to this particular phrase of "kingdom of heaven" relate to HEAVEN ITSELF?
Examples:
Mat 8:11 And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.
Mat 7:21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.
Mat 5:20 For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.
I'll need to do more study, but I guess I have always assumed that these verses above are referring to heaven itself or truths relating to heaven itself.
When Jesus said, "repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand" could this not be viewed as Him stating He is from heaven and is about to reveal heavenly truths (of His heavenly kingdom) to the people on earth?
*************
One thing that should be sure and without debate...That is the definition of the kingdom of God.
The Scripture plainly defines the kingdom of God in this verse:
Rom 14:17 For the kingdom of God is not meat and drink; but righteousness, and peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost.
Kingdom of God = righteousness, peace, joy IN the Holy Ghost.
This is where I might side with what seems to be Kermie's definition of a despensationalist view of the kingdom of God. Clearly, since the Holy Ghost IS SPIRIT, you have to say that this phrase is speaking of a spiritual kingdom (way of life / living) with or IN God.
We are baptized into His Spirit and (if so) should receive righteousness, peace, and joy....right?
It appears to me that Paul was speaking in the "present tense" when giving this definition of the Kingdom of God to the Romans.
HIS
I believe the terms are synonymous. I also remember as a Dispensational Christian doing my best to differentiate the two phrases...
Ditch the Garbage! - Too many people are proud of their humility - I, on the other hand, am not humble - and am proud of it!
"Luther's New Testament was so much multiplied and spread by printers that even tailors and shoemakers, yea, even women and ignorant persons who had accepted this new Lutheran gospel, and could read a little German, studied it with the greatest avidity as the fountain of all truth. Some committed it to memory, and carried it about in their bosom. In a few months such people deemed themselves so learned that they were not ashamed to dispute about faith and the gospel not only with Catholic laymen, but even with priests and monks and doctors of divinity." - A complaint by German humanist Johann Cochlaeus.
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Well HIS,
I think that the reason we don't consider or assume the phrase 'the kingdom of heaven' relates to heaven itself is because we have seen that the phrase is synonomys with 'the kingdom of god,' which is the New Covenant of Grace.
Grace to you,
jak
Odyssey,
I believe there is certainly good merit to believe they are synonymous. I am just wanting to get some thoughts on it becuase there are a few scriptures that don't seem this way.
As I posted above:
Mat 8:11 And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.
Does anyone wish to interpret this verse as "Christ's mediatorial authority, or his rule on the earth" (as CA is suggesting)? If so, please explain what the verse is suggesting (i.e., past or future event, what is meant by many coming from the east and west, etc.)
If I understand Kermie, this would make CA a Dispensationalist or those who "believe the Kingdom of Heaven is a literal earthly rule."
I am open for any thoughts...
HIS
No, CA said they meant the same thing.
Ditch the Garbage! - Too many people are proud of their humility - I, on the other hand, am not humble - and am proud of it!
"Luther's New Testament was so much multiplied and spread by printers that even tailors and shoemakers, yea, even women and ignorant persons who had accepted this new Lutheran gospel, and could read a little German, studied it with the greatest avidity as the fountain of all truth. Some committed it to memory, and carried it about in their bosom. In a few months such people deemed themselves so learned that they were not ashamed to dispute about faith and the gospel not only with Catholic laymen, but even with priests and monks and doctors of divinity." - A complaint by German humanist Johann Cochlaeus.
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Kermie...Yes, CA did say they denote the same thing. But she also defined them under these aspects:
This is why I asked my question...1. Christ's mediatorial authority, or his rule on the earth;
2. the blessings and advantages of all kinds that flow from this rule;
3. the subjects of this kingdom taken collectively, or the Church.
All I am wanting to do is to allow all of you to further explain or express your views in light of specific verses. The verse I am wanting clarification on is this one:
Mat 8:11 And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.
Note: I am not against the thought that the kingdom of God and kingdom of heaven are synonymous. I am just wondering how this verse fits in with it.
HIS
Well,
A 'off the top of my head' explination would be that of this being representative of the unbelief of the Jews of the first century. They did not recognize the 'day of visitation' (Luke 19.41-44; referring to the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70). The 'kingdom' was to be taken from them and given to a 'nation' that would produce it's fruit (Matt. 21.43). This can be seen from the context of the verse in question. A Roman (i.e., a Gentile) came to Jesus asking him to heal his servant. Jesus said that he would come to where the servant was and heal him. But the Roman stated that he was not worthy and that he believed that all Jesus would have to do was speak the word and the servant would be healed (Matt. 8.5-9). Jesus then marveled at the faith of the Roman and that he had not found anyone with that type of 'great faith' in all of Israel (v.10). Then, he made the statement, 'I say to you that many will come from east and west, and recline at the table with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven; but the sons of the kingdom will be cast out into the outer darkness; in that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth' (vv. 11-12). This means that the Jews, who supposed that they were automatically in the 'kindgom' because of their geneology, were to be 'cast out,' i.e., 'the son of the bondwoman shall not be an heir with the son of the free woman' (Gal. 4.30). They were not to become heirs of the kingdom. But those from the 'east and west' were. This represents the gospel being preached to the nations (i.e., the Gentiles). The 'people of god' would now include people from 'every tribe and tongue and people and nation' (Rev. 5.9) and not just the Jews.
The 'weeping and gnashing of teeth' represents the final judgment that also took place in AD 70. This event, Jesus tied to his generation (Matt. 13.36-43; Luke 11.29-32, 50-51 (look at the whole context); 21.32 (again, look at the context)).
Grace to you,
jak
Odyssey,
An interesting post, and something I had not considered (regarding the passages in Luke, Matthew, and Galatians).
Not too excited about your comment regarding AD 70, but I will give this all a sincere review and consideration.
Give me a few days to digest...
HIS
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